A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? Answer:&...

A pelvic exam of a 23 year old women showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?

A pelvic exam of a 23 year old women showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL...

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of Answer: genital herpe...

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? Answer: genital herpe...

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? Answer: It is always precancerou...

The most common reportable disease in the U.S is

The most common reportable disease in the U.S is Answer: Gonorrhe...

The most common NGU in the U.S is treated with

The most common NGU in the U.S is treated with Answer: Cephalosporin...

Which of the following is treated with penicillin?

Which of the following is treated with penicillin? Answer: Syphili...

Which of the following is/are associated with secondary stage syphilis?

Which of the following is/are associated with secondary stage syphilis? Answer: skin rashes of varying appearanc...

Which of the following types of infection can result in infertility?

Which of the following types of infection can result in infertility? Answer: Salpingitis...

A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated

A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated Answer: fals...

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by Answer: E. col...

Cystitis is most often caused by

Cystitis is most often caused by Answer: E. col...

A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates

A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates Answer: pyelonephriti...

Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems?

Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems? Answer: fals...

Which statements regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems are true?

Which statements regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems are true? Answer: pregnancy and menopause are associated...

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ___ to ___ by bacteria.

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ___ to ___ by bacteria. Answer: glycogen; lactic aci...

Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men.

Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men. Answer: tru...

Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?

Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? Answer: the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in wome...

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of Answer: Lactobacillu...

Which statement regarding the structure or function of the urinary system is false?

Which statement regarding the structure or function of the urinary system is false? Answer: in the male, the urethra conveys only urine to the...

Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones?

Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? A) Mycoplasma hominis B)...

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable?

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia;...

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia;...

A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with

A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then...

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in?

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then...

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis?

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A)...

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to...

A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?

A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the...

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? A) metronidazole B)...

Which of the following is greater?

Which of the following is greater? A) the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year B) the number of reported cases of AIDS last year C) The...

Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because

Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected...

Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis?

Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? A) Chlamydia B) Mycoplasma C) Neisseria D) Ureaplasma E) None of the answers...

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE? A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain. B) It can be caused by...

The most common NGU in the United States is treated with

The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A) penicillin. B) cephalosporins. C) acyclovir. D) AZT. E) doxycycline Answer: ce...

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C)...

Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes

Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) cystitis. B) pyelonephritis. C) vaginitis. D) gonorrhea. E) syphilis Answer: cystiti...

Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?

Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) NGU D) trichomoniasis E) genital ...

A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates

A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) cystitis. B) gonorrhea. C) urethritis. D) pyelonephritis. E) genital herpes Answer:&...

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia?

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) trichomoniasis E) lymphogranuloma venereum Answer: lymphogranuloma...

Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of

Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E) lymphogranuloma...

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E)...

Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of

Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. E) lymphogranuloma...

Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?

Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) genital herpes B) gonorrhea C) syphilis D) trichomoniasis E)...

Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea?

Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) arthritis B) pelvic inflammatory disease C) endocarditis D) meningitis E) None of the...

The most common reportable disease in the United States is

The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) cystitis. B) lymphogranuloma venereum. C) gonorrhea. D) syphilis. E) candidiasis. ...

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females?

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? A) the proximity of the anus to the urethra B) the length of the urethra C)...

Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?

Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? A) physiological valves found in the ureter B) pH of the urine C) flushing...

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas Answer: escherichia...

A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder

A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder A) is sterile. B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D)...

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria.

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) glucose; ethanol B) protein; acetic acid C) glycogen;...

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) trichomoniasis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) gonorrhea E) chancroid Ans...

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) streptococci. E)...

Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent?

Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) nongonococcal urethritis B) gonorrhea C) syphilis D)...

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) chancroid E) LGV Answer: genital...

All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT

All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) nongonococcal urethritis. D)...

One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by

One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema...

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) trichomoniasis — fungus B) gonorrhea — gram-negative cocci C) chancroid — gram-negative rod D) Gardnerella...

Which of the following is treated with penicillin?

Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) genital herpes B) genital warts C) candidiasis D) syphilis E) trichomoniasis Answer: ...

Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) lymphogranuloma venereum B) genital herpes C) gonorrhea D) chancroid E)...

The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is

The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is A) humans. B) water. C) domestic dogs. D) domestic cats. E) rats Answer: domestic...

Pyelonephritis usually is caused by

Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Proteus spp. C) Escherichia coli. D) Enterobacter aerogenes. E) Streptococcus pyogenes Answer: Escherichia...

All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others?

All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others? A) Antibody production is stopped. B) CD4+ T lymphocytes...

Pyelonephritis may result from

Pyelonephritis may result from A) urethritis. B) cystitis. C) ureteritis. D) systemic infections. E) All of the answers are correct Answer: All...

Cystitis is most often caused by

Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Candida albicans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Answer: Escherichia...

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus. B) Streptococcus. C) Mycobacterium. D) Neisseria. E) Candida Answe...

The relative risks shown in Table 25.1 were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection?

The relative risks shown in Table 25.1 were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection? A)...

Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84 percent), abdominal cramps (96 percent), nausea (84 percent), vomiting (82 percent), body aches (50 percent), fever (60 percent; median body temperature = 38.3°C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).

Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84 percent), abdominal cramps (96 percent),...

Which of the following is mismatched?

Which of the following is mismatched? A) beef — E. coli O157:H7 B) custard and cream pies — Staphylococcus aureus C) eggs — Trichinella spiralis D)...

What is a Dane particle?

What is a Dane particle? A) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV B) the infectious virion that causes HBV C) the spherical particles found...

All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT

All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT A) transmission is typically by contact with fomites or inhalation of eggs. B) diagnosis...

All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT

All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT A) Cryptosporidium. B) Cyclospora. C) Entamoeba. D) Giardia. E)...

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it A) hides in macrophages. B) makes a capsule. C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. D)...

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D)...

Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever?

Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever? A) It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat. B) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood. C) It...

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Campylobacter jejuni. B)...

Which of the following is included in GALT?

Which of the following is included in GALT? A) thymus B) Peyer's patches C) tonsils D) liver E) salivary glands Answer: Peyer's patche...

A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia while vacationing on the Gulf of Mexico. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters and gone wading in the warm coastal waters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39°C and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had a history of alcoholic liver disease. He was transferred to the ICU; therapy with antibiotics was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia while vacationing on the Gulf of Mexico. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters and...

Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay?

Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay? A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel,...

The most common mode of HAV transmission is

The most common mode of HAV transmission is A) contamination of food during preparation. B) contamination of food before it reaches a food service...

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications A) are transmitted via contaminated water. B)...

Which of the following is mismatched?

Which of the following is mismatched? A) ergot — gangrene B) Salmonella endotoxin — lyses red blood cells C) Vibrio enterotoxin — secretion of Cl-,...

Dental plaque is an example of

Dental plaque is an example of A) a pellicle. B) a biofilm. C) gingivitis. D) dentin. E) tooth enamel Answer: a biofil...

Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with

Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with A) antitoxin. B) penicillin. C) water and electrolytes. D) quinacrine. E)...

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by A) biological vectors. B) contaminated food and water. C)...

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of A) salmonellosis. B) cholera. C) bacillary dysentery. D) amebic dysentery. E) tapeworm infestation An...

Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?

Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? A) Salmonella enterica B) Shigella spp. C) hepatitis A virus D) Vibrio cholerae E) Escherichia...

Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________.

Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________. A) mycotoxin; peanuts B) mycotoxin; rye or other cereal grains C)...

A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from

A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from A) viruses grown in tissue culture. B) genetically modified yeast. C) pooled gamma globulin. D)...

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse?

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse? A) Salmonella enterica B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Trichinella...

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? A) Trichinella spiralis B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Giardia...

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever A) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages. B) the incubation period is...

Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with

Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with A) halitosis. B) cavities. C) gingivitis. D) periodontitis. E) trench ...

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) stomach and small intestine. D) small intestine and...

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT

Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT A) trichinellosis. B) beef tapeworm. C) staphylococcal food poisoning. D) salmonellosis. E)...

Which of the following is mismatched?

Which of the following is mismatched? A) hydatid disease — humans are the definitive host B) Taenia infestation — humans are the definitive host C)...

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by A) Giardia. B)...

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A) Shigella spp. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Giardia lamblia. D) Escherichia coli. E) Campylobacter...

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE? A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin. B) It can be prevented...

In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting

In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting A) the eggs of Taenia saginata. B) segments of Taenia solium tapeworms. C) water contaminated...

Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells?

Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Taenia spp. D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Entamoeba...

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) Cyclospora infection. B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E)...

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by A) Helicobacter pylori. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Vibrio cholerae. D) Shigella spp. E) Clostridium...

Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States?

Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States? A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Ascaris...

The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is

The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is A) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small...

Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) mumps C)...

Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT

Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Vibrio cholerae. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D)...

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A) It is a bacterial infection. B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms...

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by A) eating contaminated food. B) a blood transfusion. C) extended use of antibiotics. D)...

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? A) sucrose B) lysozyme C) lactic acid D) crevicular fluid E) dentin Answer: lactic...

Increased levels of C-reactive protein in the blood have been linked to increased risk of which of the following?

Increased levels of C-reactive protein in the blood have been linked to increased risk of which of the following? a. kidney disease b. liver disease c....

Increased levels of C-reactive protein in the blood have been linked to increased risk of which of the following?

Increased levels of C-reactive protein in the blood have been linked to increased risk of which of the following? a. kidney disease b. liver disease c....

Detection of high levels of mannose-binding lectin in the blood could signify:

Detection of high levels of mannose-binding lectin in the blood could signify: a. the presence of an invading pathogen b. virus replication is ongoing c....

How does the membrane attack complex (MAC) kill Gram-negative bacteria?

How does the membrane attack complex (MAC) kill Gram-negative bacteria? a. through opsonization b. it dissolves the lipid membrane c. it creates a...

Which of the following nonspecific defense mechanisms is already present and available to respond immediately to infection (and does NOT need to be synthesized)?

Which of the following nonspecific defense mechanisms is already present and available to respond immediately to infection (and does NOT need to be...

Toll-like receptors are eukaryotic membrane proteins that bind with bacterial surface molecules and:

Toll-like receptors are eukaryotic membrane proteins that bind with bacterial surface molecules and: a. form channels through which bacterial proteins...

Which of the following is an example of a semi specific, innate immune mechanisms associated with mucosal surfaces?

Which of the following is an example of a semi specific, innate immune mechanisms associated with mucosal surfaces? a. secretory IgA prevents adhesion...

Which of the following, produced by natural killer cells, punctures the membrane of target cells, causing them to burst?

Which of the following, produced by natural killer cells, punctures the membrane of target cells, causing them to burst? a. perforins b. trypsins c....

Natural killer cells target:

Natural killer cells target: a. infected cells that have lost MHC class I b. bacterial cells that have lost MHC class I c. bacterial cells that are...

Which the following creates a channel in target cell membranes?

Which the following creates a channel in target cell membranes? a. complement b. defensins c. natural killer cells d. A and B e. all of the above Answer: e....

How does IFN-gamma protect the host?

How does IFN-gamma protect the host? a. It induces dsRNA endonucleases. b. It interferes directly with viral replication. c. It has an immunomodulatory...

Interferons:

Interferons: a. are antibacterial agents produced by skin, GIT, and lung cells b. are secreted by eukaryotic cells in response to intracellular infection c....

A cascade of which of the following enzymes, when activated, causes the macrophage to commit suicide in a programmed response called apoptosis?

A cascade of which of the following enzymes, when activated, causes the macrophage to commit suicide in a programmed response called apoptosis? a....

Which of the following is a process normally used by the host to kill unwanted host cells?

Which of the following is a process normally used by the host to kill unwanted host cells? a. invagination b. secretion c. osmotic lysis d. apoptosis e....

A bacterium can live inside a phagocyte by preventing:

A bacterium can live inside a phagocyte by preventing: a. complement activation b. interferon production c. defensin production d. fusion of the phagosome...

Which of the following is NOT associated with the oxidative burst employed by phagocytic cells to kill bacteria?

Which of the following is NOT associated with the oxidative burst employed by phagocytic cells to kill bacteria? a. hydrogen peroxide b. oxygen radicals c....

Which of the following can interfere with adherence of phagocytic cells to the pathogen?

Which of the following can interfere with adherence of phagocytic cells to the pathogen? a. M protein on cell walls of Streptococcus pyogenes b. lipid...

Opsonization is a process whereby the innate and adaptive immune mechanisms work together:

Opsonization is a process whereby the innate and adaptive immune mechanisms work together: a. to phagocytize an invader b. to activate complement...

What is the correct order of the events in phagocytosis? (1) discharge of waste material, (2) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome, (3) adherence of the microbe to phagocytes, (4) digestion of ingested microbe, (5) formation of a phagosome, (6) ingestion of microbe by phagocyte

What is the correct order of the events in phagocytosis? (1) discharge of waste material, (2) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome, (3) adherence...

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. extravasation—movement of leukocytes through endothelial cells into tissues b. pus—tissue debris and...

A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. These tablets are very alkaline. Which defense mechanism might be altered by his actions?

A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. These tablets are very alkaline. Which defense mechanism might be altered by his...

Extravasation is the process by which __________ moves from the bloodstream into surrounding tissues.

Extravasation is the process by which __________ moves from the bloodstream into surrounding tissues. a. neutrophils b. natural killer cells c. antibodies d....

Interleukin-1 and IL-6 were detected in the serum. This indicates:

Interleukin-1 and IL-6 were detected in the serum. This indicates: a. mucosal IgA has been degraded b. B lymphocyte activation c. a macrophage has...

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial:

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial: a. cell membrane b. capsule c....

All of the following statements are correct regarding defensins EXCEPT:

All of the following statements are correct regarding defensins EXCEPT: a. They are produced by skin, GIT, and lung cells for defense when stimulated. b....

Defensins are short cationic peptides that:

Defensins are short cationic peptides that: a. are produced by skin, GIT, and lung cells for defense when stimulated b. bind to specific receptors...

Polymyxin B is a small cationic peptide antibiotic that mimics the action of:

Polymyxin B is a small cationic peptide antibiotic that mimics the action of: a. macrophages b. lysosomes c. defensins d. killer cells e. antibodies Answer: c....

In cystic fibrosis, a mutation has rendered the receptor for binding and inactivating Pseudomonas defective. The affected gene is the CFTR. Where is the CFTR gene product located?

In cystic fibrosis, a mutation has rendered the receptor for binding and inactivating Pseudomonas defective. The affected gene is the CFTR. Where is...

Cystic fibrosis patients are __________ prone to infection by mucoid strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa as compared with the rest of the population.

Cystic fibrosis patients are __________ prone to infection by mucoid strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa as compared with the rest of the population. a....

A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate...

Which of the following is correct regarding inflammation?

Which of the following is correct regarding inflammation? a. The cardinal signs include rash. b. Some of the phagocytes are stimulated to secrete...

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ?

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ? a. tonsils and adenoids b. spleen c. appendix d. stomach e. bone marrow Answer: d. stoma...

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. adenoids b. appendix c. Peyer's patches d. thymus e. tonsils Answer: d. thym...

Which of the following types of cells are antigen presenters in humans?

Which of the following types of cells are antigen presenters in humans? a. only T helper cells b. B lymphocytes and macrophages c. only macrophages d....

Which of the following are the major phagocytic cells in the body?

Which of the following are the major phagocytic cells in the body? a. T and B lymphocytes b. basophils and eosinophils c. erythrocytes d. neutrophils...

Which of the following is rarely normal flora of the urethra?

Which of the following is rarely normal flora of the urethra? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Bacteroides spp. c. Mycobacterium spp. d. Escherichia coli e....

Which of the following organisms are commonly used as probiotics?

Which of the following organisms are commonly used as probiotics? a. Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus acidophilus b. Bacteroides and Lactobacillus...

The aerobe to anaerobe ratio showing the greatest difference in concentrations occurs in the:

The aerobe to anaerobe ratio showing the greatest difference in concentrations occurs in the: a. intestinal tract b. mouth c. skin d. respiratory...

Which part of the genitourinary tract maintains a normal flora population?

Which part of the genitourinary tract maintains a normal flora population? a. kidney b. ureters c. bladder d. urethra e. distal urethra Answer: e....

The mucociliary escalator functions to:

The mucociliary escalator functions to: a. trap and sweep pathogens into the urine b. kill via lysozyme activity c. harbor normal flora that discourage...

Which of the following innate immunity mechanisms is mismatched with its associated structure or body fluid?

Which of the following innate immunity mechanisms is mismatched with its associated structure or body fluid? a. lysozyme—tears and saliva b. mucociliary...

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of periodontal disease?

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of periodontal disease? a. red, swollen gums b. swollen tongue c. bleeding gums d. gum shrinkage e. teeth...

Neisseria species:

Neisseria species: a. are never found as normal microbial flora of humans b. cause serious diarrhea c. are used as probionts d. are obligate intracellular...

Microbial colonization of the eye is inhibited by the presence of antimicrobial factors, like:

Microbial colonization of the eye is inhibited by the presence of antimicrobial factors, like: a. interferons b. complement c. mucous d. defensins e....

Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis layer?

Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis layer? a. hair follicle b. sebaceous gland c. blood vessels d. sweat glands e. all of the above Answer: c....

All of the following statements are correct about microbial colonization of the human body EXCEPT:

All of the following statements are correct about microbial colonization of the human body EXCEPT: a. The skin is a highly selective niche for certain...

Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process?

Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process? a. dilation of blood vessels b. release of histamines and prostaglandins c....

Which of the following should be free from microbes in a healthy individual?

Which of the following should be free from microbes in a healthy individual? a. nose b. mouth c. skin d. cerebrospinal fluid e. genitourinary tract Answer: d....

An organism found on human skin that derives benefit from the host but does NOT harm it is described as a/an:

An organism found on human skin that derives benefit from the host but does NOT harm it is described as a/an: a. parasite b. commensal c. opportunist d....

Which of the following organisms can cause Pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

Which of the following organisms can cause Pseudomembranous enterocolitis? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Clostridium difficile c. Staphylococcus aureus d....

HPV strains that cause cervical cancer produce protein E7, which:

HPV strains that cause cervical cancer produce protein E7, which:  a. causes the degradation of pRb b. frees up the transcription factor E2F...

HPV strains that cause cervical cancer produce protein E7, which:

HPV strains that cause cervical cancer produce protein E7, which:  a. causes the degradation of pRb b. frees up the transcription factor E2F...

Which of the following HIV proteins down-regulates cell surface CD4 and MHC class I?

Which of the following HIV proteins down-regulates cell surface CD4 and MHC class I?  a. Tat b. Vpr c. Nef d. Vif e. Vpu Answer: Ne...

During the latent stage of herpes virus infection:

During the latent stage of herpes virus infection:  a. host cells rapidly undergo apoptosis causing cold sores b. the viral genome exists as...

There was a dramatic dip in life expectancy in the United States in 1918 due to an epidemic of:

There was a dramatic dip in life expectancy in the United States in 1918 due to an epidemic of:  a. cholera b. plague c. polio d. influenza e....

What is a possible role for quorum sensing in pathogenicity?

What is a possible role for quorum sensing in pathogenicity?  a. It detects and responds to the pH as an indicator of the environment. b. It...

Protein A helps Staphylococcus aureus avoid :

Protein A helps Staphylococcus aureus avoid :  a. complement b. apoptosis c. phagocytosis d. cytotoxic T cells e. phagosome-lysosome fusion ...

Bacteria whose optimum growth temperature is 37°C and which produce copious amounts of polysaccharides and capsules are most likely:

Bacteria whose optimum growth temperature is 37°C and which produce copious amounts of polysaccharides and capsules are most likely:  a. opportunistic...

Which is an example of an intracellular bacterial pathogen?

Which is an example of an intracellular bacterial pathogen?  a. HIV b. Streptococcus mutans c. Coxiella burnetii d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae e....

Which of the following is correct about Salmonella and Shigella?

Which of the following is correct about Salmonella and Shigella?  a. They both produce shiga tox. b. They are Gram-positive rods. c. They are...

Tropheryma whipplei is the causative agent for Whipple's disease. It could not be cultured until recently when the genomic data showed:

Tropheryma whipplei is the causative agent for Whipple's disease. It could not be cultured until recently when the genomic data showed:  a. it...

Which of the following types of information CANNOT be derived from the full genome of an uncultured bacterial pathogen?

Which of the following types of information CANNOT be derived from the full genome of an uncultured bacterial pathogen?  a. its nutritional requirements b....

Urease is a virulence factor produced by:

Urease is a virulence factor produced by:  a. uropathogenic E. coli b. Vibrio cholerae c. Bordetella pertussis d. Helicobacter pylori e. Pseudomonas...

Antigenic shifts and phase variants are important virulence assets for which bacteria?

Antigenic shifts and phase variants are important virulence assets for which bacteria?  a. E. coli and Vibrio cholera. b. Clostridium tetani...

Bacteria that exhibit antigenic shifts and phase variations will most likely cause:

Bacteria that exhibit antigenic shifts and phase variations will most likely cause:  a. chronic infections b. recurrent infections in exposed...

In signature-tagged mutagenesis, the tag is:

In signature-tagged mutagenesis, the tag is:  a. a lacZ gene b. a fluorescent dye c. an antibiotic-resistance gene d. an oligonucleotide e. a...

Commensals do not need virulence factors to survive on their host because:

Commensals do not need virulence factors to survive on their host because:  a. they are well adapted for their specific niche b. they do not...

Which of the following techniques will you use to identify unknown virulence genes that are only expressed in the host?

Which of the following techniques will you use to identify unknown virulence genes that are only expressed in the host?  a. in situ hybridization...

Binding of which protein of the EPEC pathogenicity system directly triggers a remarkable reorganization of host cellular cytoskeletal components?

Binding of which protein of the EPEC pathogenicity system directly triggers a remarkable reorganization of host cellular cytoskeletal components?  a....

Which of the following protein secretory systems injects effector molecules directly from the bacterial cytoplasm into the host cytoplasm?

Which of the following protein secretory systems injects effector molecules directly from the bacterial cytoplasm into the host cytoplasm?  a....

Which of the following does NOT result from the release of endotoxin from Gram-negative bacteria?

Which of the following does NOT result from the release of endotoxin from Gram-negative bacteria?  a. fever b. activation of the alternate complement...

Petechiae, which result from large amounts of endotoxin, are recognized as which of the following symptoms?

Petechiae, which result from large amounts of endotoxin, are recognized as which of the following symptoms?  a. diarrhea b. a pseudomembrane c....

E. coli O157:H7 has a very low infectious dose because:

E. coli O157:H7 has a very low infectious dose because:  a. it is encapsulated b. disease results from a synergistic action with Shigella c....

The cholera and E. coli (traveler's diarrhea) toxins __________, leading to high levels of cAMP in the cell.

The cholera and E. coli (traveler's diarrhea) toxins __________, leading to high levels of cAMP in the cell.  a. ADP ribosylate the Gs factor b....

Superantigens:

Superantigens:  a. bore holes on eukaryotic cell membranes b. inhibit phagocytosis c. prevent degranulation of macrophages d. are antipyrogenic e....

The enterotoxigenic E. coli heat-stable toxin does which of the following?

The enterotoxigenic E. coli heat-stable toxin does which of the following?  a. damages membranes b. inhibits protein synthesis c. activates second...

The toxin gene in Corynebacterium diphtheriae is located on __________.

The toxin gene in Corynebacterium diphtheriae is located on __________.  a. plasmid b. mobile genes called transposons c. bacterial chromosomes d....

Toxins with ADP ribosyltransferase activity cause which of the following results?

Toxins with ADP ribosyltransferase activity cause which of the following results?  a. membrane pore formation b. immune system activation c....

Which of the following produces a toxin that disrupts protein synthesis?

Which of the following produces a toxin that disrupts protein synthesis?  a. Clostridium perfringens b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Escherichia...

What type of toxin is the alpha hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus?

What type of toxin is the alpha hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus?  a. protein synthesis inhibitor b. protease c. superantigen d. cell membrane...

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a patient who died from endotoxin pathologies?

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a patient who died from endotoxin pathologies?  a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation...

Which of the following is a non proteinaceous, yet toxic, compound found in all Gram-negative bacteria?

Which of the following is a non proteinaceous, yet toxic, compound found in all Gram-negative bacteria?  a. endotoxin b. exotoxin c. type I pilus d....

Exotoxins:

Exotoxins: a. are secreted by Gram-positive bacteria only b. contain glycolipids primarily c. are protein toxins made by Gram-positive and Gram-negative...

What do the anthrax, E. coli, cholera, and Bordetella toxins have in common?

What do the anthrax, E. coli, cholera, and Bordetella toxins have in common?  a. inhibit of protein synthesis b. possess ADP ribisytransferase...

Biofilms play a major role in enhancing bacterial virulence because:

Biofilms play a major role in enhancing bacterial virulence because:  a. biofilm strains are mutants b. the exopolymer matrix is highly toxic...

Synthesis of flagella and pili filaments in Gram negatives share which of the following in common?

Synthesis of flagella and pili filaments in Gram negatives share which of the following in common?  a. Protein export systems are used to deliver...

Type III and type I pili: a. are similar to type IV in mode of secretion

Type III and type I pili: a. are similar to type IV in mode of secretion  b. are both mannose-resistant pili c. assembly involves secA general...

Which of the following bacteria would you expect to cause the most severe blood disease in a susceptible host?

Which of the following bacteria would you expect to cause the most severe blood disease in a susceptible host? a. a rapidly growing encapsulated bacteria b....

The current classification of bacteria pili is based on the __________ rather than the __________.

The current classification of bacteria pili is based on the __________ rather than the __________.  a. phenotype; function b. function; amino...

Which of the following causes whooping cough?

Which of the following causes whooping cough?  a. Streptococcus mutans b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Bordetella pertussis d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae e....

Distinguishing features of a pathogenicity island include all of the following EXCEPT:

Distinguishing features of a pathogenicity island include all of the following EXCEPT:  a. genes are not expressed as operons b. GC/AT ratio...

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the mosquito, Aedes aegypti?

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the mosquito, Aedes aegypti?  a. yellow fever b. Ebola c. epidemic typhus d. listeriosis e....

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about disease reservoirs?

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about disease reservoirs?  a. Reservoirs are mammals or birds but not insects. b. A vector can...

What do yellow fever and West Nile virus have in common?

What do yellow fever and West Nile virus have in common?  a. both cause cancer b. birds are the reservoir for both viruses c. both are close...

The likely mode of transmission of a bacterial disease in which incidence increases with a prolonged, warm summer is:

The likely mode of transmission of a bacterial disease in which incidence increases with a prolonged, warm summer is:  a. direct transmission b....

Consider two isolates A and B: microbe 'A' had a LD50 of 5 × 104 while microbe 'B' recorded a LD50of 5 × 107.Which isolate is more virulent?

Consider two isolates A and B: microbe 'A' had a LD50 of 5 × 104 while microbe 'B' recorded a LD50of 5 × 107.Which isolate is more virulent?  a....

What term is used to designate how many bacteria or viruses are required to kill 50% of an experimental group of hosts?

What term is used to designate how many bacteria or viruses are required to kill 50% of an experimental group of hosts?  a. ID50 b. LD50 c. pathogenicity d....

Which of the following are also known as frank pathogens?

Which of the following are also known as frank pathogens? a. parasites b. endoparasites c. ectoparasites d. primary pathogens e. opportunistic pathogens Answer: primary...

A chef cut his finger accidentally while making salad. The next morning he felt pain and warmth and had a little swelling and redness on that finger (signs of inflammation). By night, he was just fine. Which of the following pertains to the chef?

A chef cut his finger accidentally while making salad. The next morning he felt pain and warmth and had a little swelling and redness on that finger...

The disease filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is caused by a(n):

The disease filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is caused by a(n):  a. ectoparasite b. endoparasite c. insect d. bacterium e. fungu...

A patient with recurring nut allergies enrolls in an experimental desensitization trail at the local allergy clinic; what should this patient expect?

A patient with recurring nut allergies enrolls in an experimental desensitization trail at the local allergy clinic; what should this patient expect?  a....

A 30-year old woman presented in the emergency room with hives all over her body. After a full examination it was determined that the zoo she had visited that morning caused the reaction. What was the most likely cause of this response?

A 30-year old woman presented in the emergency room with hives all over her body. After a full examination it was determined that the zoo she had visited...

The binding of released histamine to a H1 (histamine 1) receptor during an allergic attack induces a proinflammatory state through which pathway(s)?

The binding of released histamine to a H1 (histamine 1) receptor during an allergic attack induces a proinflammatory state through which pathway(s)?  a....

Inhalation of allergenic pollen in a susceptible person causes the induction of what primary event triggering an allergy reaction?

Inhalation of allergenic pollen in a susceptible person causes the induction of what primary event triggering an allergy reaction?  a. crosslinking...

Regulation of complement destruction of normal body cells is controlled by:

Regulation of complement destruction of normal body cells is controlled by:  a. CD8, serum factor C3b, and serum albumin b. CD58, serum factor...

A mutation that caused a person to have an ineffective complement C6 protein would have a direct effect on formation of:

A mutation that caused a person to have an ineffective complement C6 protein would have a direct effect on formation of: a. complement-antibody complex b....

Mycobacteria sp. have evolved a mechanism to evade adaptive immunity by:

Mycobacteria sp. have evolved a mechanism to evade adaptive immunity by: a. creating autoantibodies against activated T-cell populations b. triggering...

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) takes up residence in what immune cell using which receptor(s)?

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) takes up residence in what immune cell using which receptor(s)?  a. ACP cells; MHC I and II receptors b. TC...

An activated TC cell trying to kill off influenza infection in the lungs would:

An activated TC cell trying to kill off influenza infection in the lungs would:  a. release proinflammatory cytokines throughout the entire lung b....

Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (exoliatin A) reacts in the human body as a superantigen, intoxication with this means:

Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (exoliatin A) reacts in the human body as a superantigen, intoxication with this means:  a. polyclonal T-cell...

The secondary signal needed from a T cell for a B cell to differentiate into a plasma cell, is the crosslink between:

The secondary signal needed from a T cell for a B cell to differentiate into a plasma cell, is the crosslink between: a. CD8 (on TC cell) with MHC...

The secondary signal needed for TH0 helper cells to differentiate into either TH1 cells or TH2 cells is the crosslink between:

The secondary signal needed for TH0 helper cells to differentiate into either TH1 cells or TH2 cells is the crosslink between: a. CD154 (on TH0 helper...

A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen binding receptor molecule and what other protein for signal transduction?

A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen binding receptor molecule and what other protein for signal transduction?  a....

Bacteremia is a condition where live bacteria enter the bloodstream, but not the cells of the body; which form of processing would occur to stimulate a cell-mediated immune response?

Bacteremia is a condition where live bacteria enter the bloodstream, but not the cells of the body; which form of processing would occur to stimulate...

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by weakness of the skeletal muscles due to antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies; thymectomy is a successful treatment for this condition in some patients because it:

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by weakness of the skeletal muscles due to antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies;...

Positive selection in T-cell education refers to:

Positive selection in T-cell education refers to:  a. T-cell receptors (TCR) that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins b. CD8 receptors that...

The antigen binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be:

The antigen binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be: a. TCR b. MHC II c. MHC I d. CD4 e. CD Answer: MHC...

Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterial STD that lives intracellularly within human host cells; what immune response would most likely prevail in this infection?

Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterial STD that lives intracellularly within human host cells; what immune response would most likely prevail in this...

A Herpesviridae viral infection would most likely stimulate which immune cells for clearance of the infection?

A Herpesviridae viral infection would most likely stimulate which immune cells for clearance of the infection?  a. cytotoxic T cells b. helper...

Anti-Streptococcus antibodies found in the serum of a patient during a primary antibody response differ from the antibodies produced during a secondary response to the same antigen because of:

Anti-Streptococcus antibodies found in the serum of a patient during a primary antibody response differ from the antibodies produced during a secondary...

During the course of an intestinal infection with Salmonella enteritidis, the B cells undergo class switching; what switching is most likely to occur and what causes the switch?

During the course of an intestinal infection with Salmonella enteritidis, the B cells undergo class switching; what switching is most likely to occur...

RAG1 and RAG2 are enzymes that control gene splicing on B-cell antibody genes, which order are segments worked on in the creation of the heavy-chain gene segment?

RAG1 and RAG2 are enzymes that control gene splicing on B-cell antibody genes, which order are segments worked on in the creation of the heavy-chain...

Genes for the heavy-chain-antibody production consist of __________ segments, whereas genes for the light-chain-antibody production consist of __________ segments.

Genes for the heavy-chain-antibody production consist of __________ segments, whereas genes for the light-chain-antibody production consist of __________...

An example of an antigen that could stimulate naïve B-cell proliferation and differentiation without the help of a T cell would be:

An example of an antigen that could stimulate naïve B-cell proliferation and differentiation without the help of a T cell would be: a. Proteus vulgaris,...

Capping of B-cell receptors on the surface of an antigen-exposed B cell immediately causes what to occur?

Capping of B-cell receptors on the surface of an antigen-exposed B cell immediately causes what to occur?  a. VDJ gene switching, recombination,...

In immunology, the term "clonal selection" best refers to:

In immunology, the term "clonal selection" best refers to: a. the multiple types of cells needed to generate an antigenic specific response b. the...

Immunization with the childhood DPT vaccine (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) protects against subsequent exposure to tetanus by:

Immunization with the childhood DPT vaccine (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) protects against subsequent exposure to tetanus by: a. stopping isotype...

The inflammatory antibody of someone undergoing an allergic reaction to cat dander would be found primarily:

The inflammatory antibody of someone undergoing an allergic reaction to cat dander would be found primarily: a. in the lymph nodes b. free-floating...

Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time, the antibody isolated was:

Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time, the antibody isolated was: a....

A baby will receive antibodies from the mother before birth through the umbilical cord and then through the breast milk after birth, what classes of antibodies are received, respectively?

A baby will receive antibodies from the mother before birth through the umbilical cord and then through the breast milk after birth, what classes of...