One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by
A) Leptospira interrogans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Candida albicans
Answer: chlamydia trachomatis
Learn More :
Microbiology Chapter 26
- A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?
- A pelvic exam of a 23 year old women showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?
- Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
- Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
- Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
- The most common reportable disease in the U.S is
- The most common NGU in the U.S is treated with
- Which of the following is treated with penicillin?
- Which of the following is/are associated with secondary stage syphilis?
- Which of the following types of infection can result in infertility?
- A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated
- Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by
- Cystitis is most often caused by
- A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates
- Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems?
- Which statements regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems are true?
- The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ___ to ___ by bacteria.
- Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men.
- Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?
- Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of
- Which statement regarding the structure or function of the urinary system is false?
- Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones?
- A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable?
- A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?
- A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with
If the answers is incorrect or not given, you can answer the above question in the comment box. If the answers is incorrect or not given, you can answer the above question in the comment box.