Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
Answer: TRUE
Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.
Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.
Answer: TRUE
Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.
Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.
Answer: FALSE
A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.
A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.
Answer: TRUE
Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.
Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.
Answer: FALSE
Diseases that are referred to as EIDs have only been discovered in the past fifty years.
Diseases that are referred to as EIDs have only been discovered in the past fifty years.
Answer: FALSE
A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.
A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.
Answer: FALSE
MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.
MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.
Answer: FALSE
Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.
Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.
Answer: TRUE
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.
Answer: TRUE
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance.
B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test.
C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.
D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA.
E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.
Answer: C
The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)
The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)
A) endemic level.
B) epidemic level.
C) sporadic infection.
D) communicable disease.
E) pandemic.
Answer: B
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a
A) communicable disease.
B) latent infection.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) sporadic disease.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) cat-scratch disease
B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
C) rabies
D) tapeworm
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.
Answer: E
If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to
If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to
A) incubation.
B) illness.
C) decline.
D) convalescence.
Answer: B
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
A) symbiotic bacteria.
B) antagonistic bacteria.
C) parasitic bacteria.
D) commensal bacteria.
E) other fungi.
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
A) acid production by bacteria
B) bacteriocin production
C) bacteria occupying host receptors
D) bacteria causing disease
E) bacteria producing vitamin K
Answer: D
In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
A) prodromal
B) decline
C) convalescence
D) incubation
E) incubation and convalescence
Answer: E
In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
A) urinary tract infections
B) pneumonia
C) salmonellosis
D) tetanus
E) anthrax
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?
Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?
A) lifestyle
B) genetic background
C) climate
D) occupation
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.
Answer: E
A needlestick is an example of
A needlestick is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) fomite.
D) vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: C
A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as
A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as
A) subacute.
B) subclinical.
C) latent.
D) zoonotic.
E) acute.
Answer: C
The CDC is located in
The CDC is located in
A) Atlanta, GA.
B) Washington, DC.
C) New York City, NY.
D) Las Angeles, CA.
E) Chicago, IL.
Answer: A
A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?
A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?
A) analytical
B) case control
C) descriptive
D) experimental
E) prodromal
Answer: C
A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) fomite.
D) vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: E
In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?
In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?
A) July
B) January
C) February
D) March
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: C
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
A) using syringes more than once
B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C) errors in aseptic technique
D) antibiotic resistance
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) malaria vector
B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission
C) syphilis direct contact
D) influenza droplet infection
E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
Answer: E
Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
A) antibiotic resistance.
B) climatic changes.
C) new strains of previously known agents.
D) ease of travel.
E) None of the answers is correct; the emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Answer: E
Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level?
Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: D
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
A) ecology.
B) epidemiology.
C) communicable disease.
D) morbidity and mortality.
E) public health.
Answer: B
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
A) are changes felt by the patient.
B) are changes observed by the physician.
C) are specific for a particular disease.
D) always occur as part of a syndrome.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: A
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection
B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state
C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
D) primary infection: an initial illness
E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
Answer: E
Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector.
B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces.
C) Houseflies are an important vector.
D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.
E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
Answer: C
Which of the following is a fomite?
Which of the following is a fomite?
A) water
B) droplets from a sneeze
C) pus
D) insects
E) a hypodermic needle
Answer: E
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?
A) malaria
B) AIDS
C) tuberculosis
D) tetanus
E) typhoid fever
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
A) a sick person
B) a healthy person
C) a sick animal
D) a hospital
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
Answer: E
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in
A) body odor.
B) fewer diseases.
C) increased susceptibility to disease.
D) normal microbiota returning immediately.
E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?
A) They occur in compromised patients.
B) They may be caused by opportunists.
C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria.
D) They may be caused by normal microbiota.
E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.
Answer: E
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota
A) cause diseases.
B) are found in a certain location on the host.
C) are always acquired by direct contact.
D) are present for a relatively short time.
E) never cause disease.
Answer: D
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?
A) antibiotic resistance
B) lapse in aseptic techniques
C) gram-negative cell walls
D) lack of handwashing
E) lack of insect control
Answer: C
Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?
Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?
A) bacteremia
B) focal infection
C) local infection
D) septicemia
E) systemic infection
Answer: D
The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to
The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to
A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
Focal infections initially start out as
Focal infections initially start out as
A) sepsis.
B) bacteremia.
C) local infections.
D) septicemia.
E) systemic infections.
Answer: C
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease
Answer: B
Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
A) requires an arthropod.
B) involves fomites.
C) involves specific diseases.
D) requires direct contact.
E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
Answer: C
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
A) botulism
B) tuberculosis
C) measles
D) the common cold
E) diphtheria
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?
Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?
A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.
Answer: E
The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that
The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that
A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C) microorganisms can be cultured.
D) microorganisms cause disease.
E) microorganisms are the result of disease.
Answer: D
A nosocomial infection is
A nosocomial infection is
A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.
C) always caused by medical personnel.
D) only a result of surgery.
E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
Answer: B
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) At least one member must not benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
Answer: E
A commensal bacterium
A commensal bacterium
A) does not receive any benefit from its host.
B) is beneficial to its host.
C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) does not infect its host.
E) is beneficial to, and does not infect, its host.
Answer: C
In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects.
In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects.
Answer: F
Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.
Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.
Answer: T
Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980's because of adverse effects of the vaccine.
Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980's because of adverse effects of the vaccine.
Answer: T
Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs.
Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs.
Answer: F
Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans.
Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans.
Answer: F
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
Answer: F
M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.
M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.
Answer: T
Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.
Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.
Answer: F
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.
Answer: F
A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine sliver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine sliver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
a) sporotrichosis
b) necrotizing fasciitis
c) dermatophytosis
d) leishmaniasis
e) phaeohyphomycosis
Answer: E
A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
a) cat scratch disease
b) fifth disease
c) roseola
d) chickenpox
e) scabies
Answer: B
The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of
The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of
a) warts
b) smallpox
c) anthrax
d) chickenpox
e) herpes
Answer: D
Which of the following bacterial pathogens is an intracellular parasite?
Which of the following bacterial pathogens is an intracellular parasite?
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Bacillus anthracis
c) Bartonella henselae
d) Propionibacterium acnes
e) Clostridium perfringens
Answer: C
Which of the following is/are anti-phagocytic?
Which of the following is/are anti-phagocytic?
a) protein A
b) leukocidin
c) M protein
d)both protein A and M protein
e)protein A, M protein, and lekocidin
Answer: E
A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
a) pyocyanin
b) streptokinase
c) hyaluronidase
d) lipase
e) M protein
Answer: A
A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Staphylococcus aureus
e) Sporothrix schenckii
Answer: C
Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
a) mucocutaneous
b) cutaneous
c) visceral
d) both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal
e) visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal
Answer: C
A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with
A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Sarcoptes scabiei
d) Sporothrix schenkii
e) Clostridium perfringens
Answer: C
A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
a) sporotrichosis
b) phaeohyphomycosis
c) mycetoma
d) chromblasomyosis
e) necrotizing fasciitis
Answer: D
Sporotrichosis is more commonly known as
Sporotrichosis is more commonly known as
a) rose-gardener's disease
b) ringworm
c) white piedra
d) herpangina
e) scabies
Answer: A
Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
a) Piedraia hortae
b) Pseudallescheria
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Leishmania sp.
e) Sarcoptes scabiei
Answer: C
"Ringworm" is caused by
"Ringworm" is caused by
a) parasitic worms that infect the skin
b) immunosuppression due to HIV infection
c) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes
d) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin
e) dermatophytes growing in upper dead tissue layers of the skin
Answer: E
Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
a) warts
b) roseola
c) impetigo
d) neonatal herpes
e) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Answer: E
Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?
Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?
a) HHV-6 : roseola
b) variola : smallpox
c) German measles : rubella
d) measles : rubeola
e) herpes zoster : genital warts
Answer: E
Which of the following can cause birth defects?
Which of the following can cause birth defects?
a) roseola
b) smallpox
c) rubella
d) measles
e) chickenpox
Answer: C
Erythema infectiosum is also known as
Erythema infectiosum is also known as
a) roseola
b) three-day measles
c) rubeola
d) herpangina
e) fifth disease
Answer: E
Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to
Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to
a) produce deoxyribonucleases
b) integrate into the host cell DNA
c) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion
d) lie dormant in cells for years
e) cause extensive damage to blood vessels
Answer: B
Common skin warts are the result of infection with
Common skin warts are the result of infection with
a) herpesviruses
b) moriliviruses
c) coxsackieviruses
d) poxviruses
e) papillomaviruses
Answer: E
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the same virus that causes
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the same virus that causes
a) whitlows
b) smallpox
c) measles
d) chickenpox
e) German measles
Answer: D
Acyclovir is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat
Acyclovir is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat
a) measles
b) anthrax
c) herpes
d) acne
e) smallpox
Answer: C
Clostridium perfringens is a strict anaerobe that is a common environmental contaminant and consequently of wounds due to its ability to
Clostridium perfringens is a strict anaerobe that is a common environmental contaminant and consequently of wounds due to its ability to
a) invade cells
b) produce hyaluronidase
c) produce endospores
d) form biofilms
e) grown in an insect vector
Answer: C
Smallpox was the first human disease to be
Smallpox was the first human disease to be
a) analyzed and studied on the genetic level
b) identified as a viral disease
c) treated with antiviral drugs
d) globally eradicated
e) re-created in an experimental animal
Answer: D
"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?
"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?
a) a macule
b) a pustule
c) a whitlow
d) a vesicle
e) a papule
Answer: B
What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
a) interference with host cell metabolism
b) stimulation of a strong immune response
c) damage to blood vessels
d) formation of biofilms in host tissues
e) cellular damage via potent exotoxins
Answer: C
Transovarial transmission is a process by which
Transovarial transmission is a process by which
a) a pathogen infects the ovaries of its host
b) a pathogen is transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated eggs
c) an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries
d) a pathogen is spread from host to host by unprotected sexual intercourse
e) a pathogen is transmitted from an infected male to a healthy female during mating
Answer: C
Petechiae are subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with which of the following?
Petechiae are subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with which of the following?
a) smallpox
b) RMSF
c) anthrax
d) necrotizing fasciitis
e) herpes gladiatorum
Answer: B
The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
a) production of exoenzyme S.
b) production of pyocyanin
c) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources
d) ability to pump drugs out of the cell
e) ability to grow in almost any moist environment
Answer: D
Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
a) the appearance of eschars on the skin
b) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
c) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
d) the microscopic appearance of its cells
e) the shape of its endospores
Answer: A
Cat scratch disease is caused by
Cat scratch disease is caused by
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Bartonella henselae
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
e) Rickettsia rickettsii
Answer: C
A specific wavelength of blue light can be used to treat
A specific wavelength of blue light can be used to treat
a) bacteremia
b) swimmer's ear
c) acne
d) RMSF
e) cat scratch fever
Answer: C
Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Rickettsia rickettsii
d) Streptococcus pyogenes
e) both Streptococcus pyogenes ans Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: E
The common name for a furuncle is
The common name for a furuncle is
a) a sty
b) acne
c) a rash
d) a boil
e) a wart
Answer: D
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by
a) coagulase
b) exfoliative toxins
c) beta-lactamase
d) staphylokinase
e) lipase
Answer: B
Impetigo can be caused by
Impetigo can be caused by
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
e) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: D
Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?
Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?
a) scalded skin syndrome
b) erysipelas
c) a carbuncle
d) shingles
e) a sty
Answer: B
Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce
Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce
a) a slime layer
b) lipase
c) beta-lactamase
d) coagulase
e) staphylokinase
Answer: C
One feature that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is its
One feature that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is its
a) beta-lactamase production
b) slime layer production
c) coagulase production
d) production of both a slime layer and coagulase
e) production of both coagulase and beta-lactamase
Answer: E
An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
a) carbuncle
b) furuncle
c) sty
d) pimple
e) macule
Answer: C
Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because of their resistance to
Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because of their resistance to
a) salt
b) sebum, salt, and keratin
c) sebum and salt
d) sebum
e) keratin
Answer: C
The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
a) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
b) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
c) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
d) the surface is covered in salt.
e) the outer layers of cells are dead
Answer: A
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